Part II (Pars Prima Secundae) Part 180 (2/2)

FIFTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 111, Art. 5]

Whether Gratuitous Grace Is n.o.bler Than Sanctifying Grace?

Objection 1: It would seem that gratuitous grace is n.o.bler than sanctifying grace. For ”the people's good is better than the individual good,” as the Philosopher says (Ethic. i, 2). Now sanctifying grace is ordained to the good of one man alone, whereas gratuitous grace is ordained to the common good of the whole Church, as stated above (AA. 1, 4). Hence gratuitous grace is n.o.bler than sanctifying grace.

Obj. 2: Further, it is a greater power that is able to act upon another, than that which is confined to itself, even as greater is the brightness of the body that can illuminate other bodies, than of that which can only s.h.i.+ne but cannot illuminate; and hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. v, 1) ”that justice is the most excellent of the virtues,” since by it a man bears himself rightly towards others.

But by sanctifying grace a man is perfected only in himself; whereas by gratuitous grace a man works for the perfection of others. Hence gratuitous grace is n.o.bler than sanctifying grace.

Obj. 3: Further, what is proper to the best is n.o.bler than what is common to all; thus to reason, which is proper to man, is n.o.bler than to feel, which is common to all animals. Now sanctifying grace is common to all members of the Church, but gratuitous grace is the proper gift of the more exalted members of the Church. Hence gratuitous grace is n.o.bler than sanctifying grace.

_On the contrary,_ The Apostle (1 Cor. 12:31), having enumerated the gratuitous graces, adds: ”And I shew unto you yet a more excellent way”; and as the sequel proves he is speaking of charity, which pertains to sanctifying grace. Hence sanctifying grace is more n.o.ble than gratuitous grace.

_I answer that,_ The higher the good to which a virtue is ordained, the more excellent is the virtue. Now the end is always greater than the means. But sanctifying grace ordains a man immediately to a union with his last end, whereas gratuitous grace ordains a man to what is preparatory to the end; i.e. by prophecy and miracles and so forth, men are induced to unite themselves to their last end. And hence sanctifying grace is n.o.bler than gratuitous grace.

Reply Obj. 1: As the Philosopher says (Metaph. xii, text. 52), a mult.i.tude, as an army, has a double good; the first is in the mult.i.tude itself, viz. the order of the army; the second is separate from the mult.i.tude, viz. the good of the leader--and this is better good, since the other is ordained to it. Now gratuitous grace is ordained to the common good of the Church, which is ecclesiastical order, whereas sanctifying grace is ordained to the separate common good, which is G.o.d. Hence sanctifying grace is the n.o.bler.

Reply Obj. 2: If gratuitous grace could cause a man to have sanctifying grace, it would follow that the gratuitous grace was the n.o.bler; even as the brightness of the sun that enlightens is more excellent than that of an object that is lit up. But by gratuitous grace a man cannot cause another to have union with G.o.d, which he himself has by sanctifying grace; but he causes certain dispositions towards it. Hence gratuitous grace needs not to be the more excellent, even as in fire, the heat, which manifests its species whereby it produces heat in other things, is not more n.o.ble than its substantial form.

Reply Obj. 3: Feeling is ordained to reason, as to an end; and thus, to reason is n.o.bler. But here it is the contrary; for what is proper is ordained to what is common as to an end. Hence there is no comparison.

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QUESTION 112

OF THE CAUSE OF GRACE (In Five Articles)

We must now consider the cause of grace; and under this head there are five points of inquiry:

(1) Whether G.o.d alone is the efficient cause of grace?

(2) Whether any disposition towards grace is needed on the part of the recipient, by an act of free-will?

(3) Whether such a disposition can make grace follow of necessity?

(4) Whether grace is equal in all?

(5) Whether anyone may know that he has grace?

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FIRST ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 112, Art. 1]

Whether G.o.d Alone Is the Cause of Grace?

Objection 1: It would seem that G.o.d alone is not the cause of grace.

For it is written (John 1:17): ”Grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.” Now, by the name of Jesus Christ is understood not merely the Divine Nature a.s.suming, but the created nature a.s.sumed. Therefore a creature may be the cause of grace.

Obj. 2: Further, there is this difference between the sacraments of the New Law and those of the Old, that the sacraments of the New Law cause grace, whereas the sacraments of the Old Law merely signify it.

Now the sacraments of the New Law are certain visible elements.

Therefore G.o.d is not the only cause of grace.

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