Part III (Secunda Secundae) Part 136 (1/2)
Reply Obj. 2: Some are bound to make oblations, both before making them, as in the first, third, and fourth cases, and after they have made them by a.s.signment or promise: for they are bound to offer in reality that which has been already offered to the Church by way of a.s.signment.
Reply Obj. 3: Those who do not make the oblations they are bound to make may be punished by being deprived of the sacraments, not by the priest himself to whom the oblations should be made, lest he seem to exact, something for bestowing the sacraments, but by someone superior to him.
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SECOND ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 86, Art. 2]
Whether Oblations Are Due to Priests Alone?
Objection 1: It would seem that oblations are not due to priests alone. For chief among oblations would seem to be those that are deputed to the sacrifices of victims. Now whatever is given to the poor is called a ”victim” in Scripture according to Heb. 13:16, ”Do not forget to do good and to impart, for by such victims [Douay: 'sacrifices'] G.o.d's favor is obtained.” Much more therefore are oblations due to the poor.
Obj. 2: Further, in many parishes monks have a share in the oblations. Now ”the case of clerics is distinct from the case of monks,” as Jerome states [*Ep. xiv, ad Heliod.]. Therefore oblations art not due to priests alone.
Obj. 3: Further, lay people with the consent of the Church buy oblations such as loaves and so forth, and they do so for no other reason than that they may make use thereof themselves. Therefore oblations may have reference to the laity.
_On the contrary,_ A canon of Pope Damasus [*Damasus I] quoted X, qu.
i [*Can. Hanc consuetudinem], says: ”None but the priests whom day by day we see serving the Lord may eat and drink of the oblations which are offered within the precincts of the Holy Church: because in the Old Testament the Lord forbade the children of Israel to eat the sacred loaves, with the exception of Aaron and his sons” (Lev. 24:8, 9).
_I answer that,_ The priest is appointed mediator and stands, so to speak, _between_ the people and G.o.d, as we read of Moses (Deut. 5:5), wherefore it belongs to him to set forth the Divine teachings and sacraments before the people; and besides to offer to the Lord things appertaining to the people, their prayers, for instance, their sacrifices and oblations. Thus the Apostle says (Heb. 5:1): ”Every high priest taken from among men is ordained for men in the things that appertain to G.o.d, that he may offer up gifts and sacrifices for sins.” Hence the oblations which the people offer to G.o.d concern the priests, not only as regards their turning them to their own use, but also as regards the faithful dispensation thereof, by spending them partly on things appertaining to the Divine wors.h.i.+p, partly on things touching their own livelihood (since they that serve the altar partake with the altar, according to 1 Cor. 9:13), and partly for the good of the poor, who, as far as possible, should be supported from the possessions of the Church: for our Lord had a purse for the use of the poor, as Jerome observes on Matt. 17:26, ”That we may not scandalize them.”
Reply Obj. 1: Whatever is given to the poor is not a sacrifice properly speaking; yet it is called a sacrifice in so far as it is given to them for G.o.d's sake. In like manner, and for the same reason, it can be called an oblation, though not properly speaking, since it is not given immediately to G.o.d. Oblations properly so called fall to the use of the poor, not by the dispensation of the offerers, but by the dispensation of the priests.
Reply Obj. 2: Monks or other religious may receive oblations under three counts. First, as poor, either by the dispensation of the priests, or by ordination of the Church; secondly, through being ministers of the altar, and then they can accept oblations that are freely offered; thirdly, if the parishes belong to them, and they can accept oblations, having a right to them as rectors of the Church.
Reply Obj. 3: Oblations when once they are consecrated, such as sacred vessels and vestments, cannot be granted to the use of the laity: and this is the meaning of the words of Pope Damasus. But those which are unconsecrated may be allowed to the use of layfolk by permission of the priests, whether by way of gift or by way of sale.
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THIRD ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 86, Art. 3]
Whether a Man May Make Oblations of Whatever He Lawfully Possesses?
Objection 1: It would seem that a man may not make oblations of whatever he lawfully possesses. According to human law [*Dig. xii, v, de Condict. ob. turp. vel iniust. caus. 4] ”the wh.o.r.e's is a shameful trade in what she does but not in what she takes,” and consequently what she takes she possesses lawfully. Yet it is not lawful for her to make an oblation with her gains, according to Deut. 23:18, ”Thou shalt not offer the hire of a strumpet ... in the house of the Lord thy G.o.d.” Therefore it is not lawful to make an oblation of whatever one possesses lawfully.
Obj. 2: Further, in the same pa.s.sage it is forbidden to offer ”the price of a dog” in the house of G.o.d. But it is evident that a man possesses lawfully the price of a dog he has lawfully sold. Therefore it is not lawful to make an oblation of whatever we possess lawfully.
Obj. 3: Further, it is written (Malachi 1:8): ”If you offer the lame and the sick, is it not evil?” Yet an animal though lame or sick is a lawful possession. Therefore it would seem that not of every lawful possession may one make an oblation.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Prov. 3:9): ”Honor the Lord with thy substance.” Now whatever a man possesses lawfully belongs to his substance. Therefore he may make oblations of whatever he possesses lawfully.
_I answer that,_ As Augustine says (De Verb. Dom. Serm. cxiii), ”shouldst thou plunder one weaker than thyself and give some of the spoil to the judge, if he should p.r.o.nounce in thy favor, such is the force of justice that even thou wouldst not be pleased with him: and if this should not please thee, neither does it please thy G.o.d.”
Hence it is written (Ecclus. 34:21): ”The offering of him that sacrificeth of a thing wrongfully gotten is stained.” Therefore it is evident that an oblation must not be made of things unjustly acquired or possessed. In the Old Law, however, wherein the figure was predominant, certain things were reckoned unclean on account of their signification, and it was forbidden to offer them. But in the New Law all G.o.d's creatures are looked upon as clean, as stated in t.i.tus 1:15: and consequently anything that is lawfully possessed, considered in itself, may be offered in oblation. But it may happen accidentally that one may not make an oblation of what one possesses lawfully; for instance if it be detrimental to another person, as in the case of a son who offers to G.o.d the means of supporting his father (which our Lord condemns, Matt. 15:5), or if it give rise to scandal or contempt, or the like.
Reply Obj. 1: In the Old Law it was forbidden to make an offering of the hire of a strumpet on account of its uncleanness, and in the New Law, on account of scandal, lest the Church seem to favor sin if she accept oblations from the profits of sin.
Reply Obj. 2: According to the Law, a dog was deemed an unclean animal. Yet other unclean animals were redeemed and their price could be offered, according to Lev. 27:27, ”If it be an unclean animal, he that offereth it shall redeem it.” But a dog was neither offered nor redeemed, both because idolaters used dogs in sacrifices to their idols, and because they signify robbery, the proceeds of which cannot be offered in oblation. However, this prohibition ceased under the New Law.
Reply Obj. 3: The oblation of a blind or lame animal was declared unlawful for three reasons. First, on account of the purpose for which it was offered, wherefore it is written (Malach. 1:8): ”If you offer the blind in sacrifice, is it not evil?” and it behooved sacrifices to be without blemish. Secondly, on account of contempt, wherefore the same text goes on (Malach. 1:12): ”You have profaned”
My name, ”in that you say: The table of the Lord is defiled and that which is laid thereupon is contemptible.” Thirdly, on account of a previous vow, whereby a man has bound himself to offer without blemish whatever he has vowed: hence the same text says further on (Malach. 1:14): ”Cursed is the deceitful man that hath in his flock a male, and making a vow offereth in sacrifice that which is feeble to the Lord.” The same reasons avail still in the New Law, but when they do not apply the unlawfulness ceases.
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FOURTH ARTICLE [II-II, Q. 86, Art. 4]
Whether Men Are Bound to Pay First-fruits?